So I was reading the Wikipedia page for Principle of Indifference, and it says that the principle becomes meaningless under the Frequentist interpretation.

I gave it some thought but still can't quite get why the principle would become meaningless under the frequentist view (as opposed to the subjective view of probability).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_indifference#:~:text=The%20principle%20of%20indifference%20states,the%20simplest%20non%2Dinformative%20prior.

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