Ok, so a few days ago I asked you guys to explain to me why the Riemann Zeta function has zeroes at the negative even integers despite the fact it is a summation which makes no sense.
And I got a bunch of shitty answers or vague, simplistic answers that did not address the question, as well as many schizo-tier pseudointellectual answers.
So I just looked it up myself and it's literally the most simple basic shit ever that even a drooling baby in diapers could understand yet the world sucks at explaining math I guess.
It's literally just because:
1. The Riemann Zeta function is more than one function, it is multiple analytically equivalent functions that change depending on the input.
2. For negative inputs, you use a different function (not a summation) that is in the form A*B*C*D etc.
3. And in that negative function, one of the terms is sine of input*pi divided by 2, meaning that for all of the even integer inputs, that term will equate to 0, because sin of even coefficients of pi is always zero which means A*B*zero*D will always be zero and that is why it is a zero for the Riemann Zeta function, and since this only applies to the negative Zeta function, that is why it is only the negative integers and not the positive ones.
It was THAT simple and basic of an answer and all I got was some schizo psuedointellectual shit from sci as well as a bunch of vague answers that did not address the question.
I like math but people are just so bad at explaining things, I'm sure some of you can understand it but you really don't know how to put it in writing huh.
And I got a bunch of shitty answers or vague, simplistic answers that did not address the question, as well as many schizo-tier pseudointellectual answers.
So I just looked it up myself and it's literally the most simple basic shit ever that even a drooling baby in diapers could understand yet the world sucks at explaining math I guess.
It's literally just because:
1. The Riemann Zeta function is more than one function, it is multiple analytically equivalent functions that change depending on the input.
2. For negative inputs, you use a different function (not a summation) that is in the form A*B*C*D etc.
3. And in that negative function, one of the terms is sine of input*pi divided by 2, meaning that for all of the even integer inputs, that term will equate to 0, because sin of even coefficients of pi is always zero which means A*B*zero*D will always be zero and that is why it is a zero for the Riemann Zeta function, and since this only applies to the negative Zeta function, that is why it is only the negative integers and not the positive ones.
It was THAT simple and basic of an answer and all I got was some schizo psuedointellectual shit from sci as well as a bunch of vague answers that did not address the question.
I like math but people are just so bad at explaining things, I'm sure some of you can understand it but you really don't know how to put it in writing huh.
