I've seen a few threads about this but what does it actually mean brain/genetically wise?
Are West Africans simply more archaic than other human populations or does this not have an effect on them?
what archaic hominin did they mix with?
biology and anthropology fags needed
>Our analyses of site frequency spectra indicate that these populations derive 2 to 19% of their genetic ancestry from an archaic population that diverged before the split of Neanderthals and modern humans
>We determined the posterior mean for the split time to be 625,000 years before the present (B.P.)
>the admixture event time to be 43,000 years B.P.
>and the admixture fraction to be 0.11 (95% HPD: 0.045 to 0.19)
>On average, ?6.6 and ?7.0% of the genome sequences in YRI and MSL were labelled as putatively archaic in ancestry
Are West Africans simply more archaic than other human populations or does this not have an effect on them?
what archaic hominin did they mix with?
biology and anthropology fags needed
>Our analyses of site frequency spectra indicate that these populations derive 2 to 19% of their genetic ancestry from an archaic population that diverged before the split of Neanderthals and modern humans
>We determined the posterior mean for the split time to be 625,000 years before the present (B.P.)
>the admixture event time to be 43,000 years B.P.
>and the admixture fraction to be 0.11 (95% HPD: 0.045 to 0.19)
>On average, ?6.6 and ?7.0% of the genome sequences in YRI and MSL were labelled as putatively archaic in ancestry
