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Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 04:58:18 2020 No.12368833 View Reply Original Report

Quoted By: >>12368889 >>12368922

If absolute zero does not exist then there must be non-zero energy per infinitesimal measurement. if there are a infinite amount of infinitesimal measurements per particle, does this mean there is a infinite amount of energy per particle?

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 05:27:58 No.12368889 Report

Quoted By: >>12368895 >>12368911

>>12368833
no, the universe is discrete

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 05:30:49 No.12368895 Report

Quoted By: >>12368969

>>12368889
Infinite Divisibility > Fundamental Particles.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 05:37:10 No.12368911 Report

Quoted By: >>12368969

>>12368889
Universe is continuous you hack.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 05:41:57 No.12368922 Report

Quoted By:

>>12368833
Sounds like you cannot into integrals

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:17:07 No.12368969 Report

Quoted By: >>12368976

>>12368895
>>12368911

the universe is infinitely divisible into discrete particles. particles interact to create waves, waves interact to create particles, and it's wave-particle oscillation all the way down.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:21:05 No.12368976 Report

Quoted By: >>12368997

>>12368969
Why would infinite divisibility cease to be relevant at a given measurement? 1/2/2/2/2//2/2/2//2/2//2 until you fucking die and it still works, gets a non zero number and is logically correct.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:39:07 No.12368997 Report

Quoted By: >>12369004

>>12368976
1 divided by a billion 2s is still a discrete number. divide it by a billion more 2s and you still have a discrete number. an infinite range is still, effectively, made up of discrete values, and the two are not mutually exclusive.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:43:16 No.12369004 Report

Quoted By: >>12369014

>>12368997
But not if you were to divide by infinity, then you would have 0.0(repeating)1 Then it would be continuous correct?

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:46:50 No.12369014 Report

Quoted By: >>12369025

>>12369004
anon infinite isn't a number

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:50:08 No.12369025 Report

Quoted By: >>12369037

>>12369014
But logically is 1/2 is 0.5 and 1/4 is 0.25 you can deduce that the larger the number(infinite) it(1) is divided by the smaller the number is going to be. so 1/infinity is 0.0(repeating)1

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:56:31 No.12369037 Report

Quoted By: >>12369066

>>12369025
anon, like I said, infinite isn't a number, it's just a concept of an unending range of numbers, and it can be defined in any way.

if you were to divide 1 by the infinite range of numbers found between 0 and 1, the end result would be infinitely large, not infinitely small, and, if actually attempted in real life, would shit out logical and discrete numbers forever.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 06:59:57 No.12369043 Report

Quoted By: >>12369057

>t. I don't understand infinity and infinitesmals
There are infinitely many real numbers between 0 and 1, but it doesn't mean that the distance from 0 to 1 is infinite, you doofus. Now go and do your homework.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:08:38 No.12369057 Report

Quoted By:

>>12369043
the argument is about discrete numbers, not about which infinite is larger than another infinite

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:10:50 No.12369066 Report

Quoted By: >>12369075

>>12369037
I didn't say 0 to 1 I said infinity. I know that's hard to understand by I meant infinite. If the universe is infinite then it's not quantitatively a number? How does that make sense?

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:13:50 No.12369073 Report

Quoted By: >>12369079

Without mentioning the planck length, explain how infinite divisibility is not able to be applied to any quantitative measurement. Then while your at it, you can explain how the universe being discrete while still being infinite is relevant to the original question.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:14:04 No.12369075 Report

Quoted By: >>12369083

>>12369066
protip: the range from 0 to 1 is an infinite set. there is more than one infinite set, there's actually an infinite number of infinite sets of numbers. infinite is not a number, it does not, on its own, have any value. infinite is a set that does not end, nothing more, nothing less, and when you're dealing with an infinite set of discrete numbers, all numbers within that infinite set will be discrete.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:15:29 No.12369078 Report

Quoted By:

Uncertainty Principle :^°}

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:15:33 No.12369079 Report

Quoted By:

>>12369073
OP is a fag and his question doesn't matter anymore, we're talking about something else now

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 21 Nov 2020 07:16:19 No.12369083 Report

Quoted By:

>>12369075
How does it being discrete have anything to do with the invalidity of my original statement though.

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