>if P(n) is an ordered sequence of primes
>where there is no prime between P(n) and P(n+1)
>where n is an element of the set of natural numbers
>as n approaches infinity/gets arbitrarily large P(n)/P(n+1) = 1
>and likewise P(n+1)/P(n) = 1
I saw this posted before in a meme thread and I was curious if it was true.
does that mean in the neighborhood of infinity there are two prime numbers infinitely close to each other?