So, some theorem (don't know which one) should say that for all natural numbers n, there is a prime p such that n<p<2n.
But how do you prove that? I hope it doesn't require some ultrametric p-adic calculus or combinatorial knot theory, becouse I'm no expert in those areas.
But how do you prove that? I hope it doesn't require some ultrametric p-adic calculus or combinatorial knot theory, becouse I'm no expert in those areas.
