>A challenging argument by Gareth Evans [1978] seems to show that there cannot be objects such that it is indeterminate whether or not they are identical. Suppose it is indeterminate that S1 = S2. It is not indeterminate that S2 = S2. But now S1 has a property which S2 lacks - that of its being indeterminate that it is S2. By Leibniz's Law, it follows that S1 is not S2. If they were identical, there could be no property which S1 has and S2 does not have.
Edgington D. (2002) Williamson on Vagueness, Identity and Leibniz’s Law.
What is your take on this, /sci/?
Edgington D. (2002) Williamson on Vagueness, Identity and Leibniz’s Law.
What is your take on this, /sci/?
