Beal Conjecture: What is wrong with this very simple proof?

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A few months ago, I came across the Beal Conjecture in the book The Professor, the Banker, and the Suicide King: Inside the Richest Poker Game of All Time by Michael Craig. I worked out what I believe to be an incredibly simple proof to the conjecture, but as a complete amateur approaching a problem that thousands have before I know that there must be something I'm missing here.

How I understood the proof best is as follows: "For any six positive integer numbers A, B, C, x, y, z, if x, y and z are greater than 2 and A^x + B^y = C^z then there is a prime number that divides A, B and C." - u/brazzy42 in r/explainlikeimfive.

Based on the above understanding, the following is the solution I worked out to try and prove the conjecture:

{A, B, C} = {2, 2, 2}, where A, B, C are all positive integers that are divisible by the prime number of 2.
{x, y, z} = {3, 3, 4}, where x, y, z are all positive integers that are greater than 2.
Ax + By = Cz
23 + 23 = 24
8 + 8 = 16
16 = 16

A preliminary thank you to anyone that takes the time to read this post and help me understand better.