/sci/ - Science & Math » Thread #11925315

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Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 06:54:02 2020 No.11925315 View Reply Original Report

Quoted By: >>11925352 >>11925478

How did they get from line 1.29 to 1.30. Ib4 use intergration by parts, i dont get how they did that such that the middle equation in 1.29 is gone

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:24:11 No.11925352 Report

Quoted By: >>11925388

>>11925315

theres a footnote 17 , go check it out you mathlet

El Arcón

El Arcón Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:33:26 No.11925364 Report

Quoted By: >>11925373 >>11925553

I have a VERY low opinion of authors who say "I integrated teh parts" but they don't say which parts they selected.

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:39:22 No.11925373 Report

Quoted By: >>11925385 >>11925392

>>11925364
Because you're a brainlet. He clearly took x and the derivative.

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:48:36 No.11925385 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925373
Yeh but if u=x and dv=(phi shit) i dont see how the uv in uv-Sudv canceles the middle equation in 1.29

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:49:47 No.11925388 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925352
Thats for product rule?

El Arcón

El Arcón Wed 22 Jul 2020 07:52:03 No.11925392 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925373
I think you're a brainlet, whcih isn't a nice word really since it has to do with my sister's lobotomy tortures, because you take one example where it's is easy as a general representation for all unspecified integrations by parts. It only takes one line to say what the parts where.

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 08:54:17 No.11925478 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925315
Absolute fucking retard, just stop, QM isn't for you :
https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/192029/integration-by-parts-to-derive-d-langle-x-rangle-dt

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:10:18 No.11925496 Report

Quoted By: >>11925500 >>11925530

$ \dfrac{d(x)}{dt}=-\dfrac{i \hbar }{2m} \int \left ( \Psi ^\ast \, \dfrac{ \partial \Psi}{ \partial x}- \dfrac{ \partial \Psi^ \ast }{ \partial x} \Psi \right ) $

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:12:07 No.11925500 Report

Quoted By: >>11925545

>>11925496
integral sign is too small
how do you make it as tall as the parenthesis?

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:23:09 No.11925519 Report

Quoted By:

$ \dfrac{d(x)}{dt}=-\dfrac{i \hbar }{2m} \int {\left ( \Psi ^\ast \, \dfrac{ \partial \Psi}{ \partial x}- \dfrac{ \partial \Psi^ \ast }{ \partial x} \Psi \right )} $
test: \int{foobar}

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:28:40 No.11925530 Report

Quoted By: >>11925538

>>11925496
Yeh but how do we get here?

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:31:51 No.11925538 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925530
no clue sorry, just thought that someone would bother to answer if they could just copypaste the latex

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:33:47 No.11925545 Report

Quoted By: >>11925551 >>11925569

>>11925500
maybe with \displaystyle
$\displaystyle int$

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:35:49 No.11925551 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925545
$\displaystyle \int$

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:37:30 No.11925553 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925364
based tooker.

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:45:27 No.11925567 Report

Quoted By: >>11925569

$ \dfrac{d(x)}{dt}=-\dfrac{i \hbar }{2m} \displaystyle \int \left ( \Psi ^\ast \, \dfrac{ \partial \Psi}{ \partial x}- \dfrac{ \partial \Psi^ \ast }{ \partial x} \Psi \right ) dx $

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:46:30 No.11925569 Report

Quoted By:

>>11925567
>>11925545
ty, it works!

Anonymous

Anonymous Wed 22 Jul 2020 09:57:30 No.11925592 Report

Quoted By:

<x>, not (x)
$ \dfrac{d\langle x \rangle}{dt}=-\dfrac{i \hbar }{2m} \displaystyle \int \left ( \Psi ^\ast \, \dfrac{ \partial \Psi}{ \partial x}- \dfrac{ \partial \Psi^ \ast }{ \partial x} \Psi \right ) dx $

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