Is there enough leeway in the experimental data for the following explanation of Bell's inequality?

The angle determines not only the probability the particle will measure + in the detector, but the probability it will get measured in the first place.
Thus, in a 0° detector, a 0° particle has 100% probability of getting measured, and it will always measure +.
a 90°particle has a 50% chance of getting measured + or -, 50% of each it will get measured.
A 45°particle has a 25% chance of turning -, 25% of which will actually get measured, and a 75% chance of measuring +, 75% of which it will actually get measured, etc. Giving us the "non-classical" ratios we see.