So let's say a control group had a specific side effect rate of 2% and the active group had 3.5% for the same side effect.
If you subtract the placebo results, can't it be assumed that there is a possibility that the side effect rate caused by the actual drug may be closer to 1.5%?
If you subtract the placebo results, can't it be assumed that there is a possibility that the side effect rate caused by the actual drug may be closer to 1.5%?
