Hello anons, brainlets here. Can someone smarter than me tell me if I am correct about this theoretical situation, or just really stupid? It is about gambling/statistics

I was wondering if versus house odds, let's say 49% chance of winning, would it be better to do one $100 bet, one hundred $1 bets, or would they be exactly the same? My thinking was that it would be better to do one $100 bet to give yourself the closest true chance to a 50/50 win that you can get because the maximum amount you could possibly win would be the same in both scenarious, but doing one hundred $1 bets would mean you are opening yourself up to more possibility of hitting a streak of losses and going into the negative. Is this reasoning correct, or stupid? Do both scenarios actually have the exact same possibility of outcome? Can someone who understands statistics explain this to me? I tried reading about the gambler's ruin problem but I am not sure if it would be applicable in this situation. Pls no bully