Can someone clarify the statistics and underlying reasoning for this quote?
Consider two haploid populations each of size n. In population 1 the frequency of a gene, say ‘þ’ as opposed to ‘’, at a single diallelic locus is p and in population 2 it is q, where p þ q 141. (The symmetry is deliberate.) Each popula- tion manifests simple binomial variability, and the overall variability is augmented by the difference in the means. The
natural way to analyse this variability is the analysis of variance, from which it will be found that the ratio of the within-population sum of squares to the total sum of squares is simply 4pq. Taking p 14 0.3 and q 14 0.7, this ratio is 0.84; 84% of the variability is within-population
Why is 4pq the variability of within population variance?
Consider two haploid populations each of size n. In population 1 the frequency of a gene, say ‘þ’ as opposed to ‘’, at a single diallelic locus is p and in population 2 it is q, where p þ q 141. (The symmetry is deliberate.) Each popula- tion manifests simple binomial variability, and the overall variability is augmented by the difference in the means. The
natural way to analyse this variability is the analysis of variance, from which it will be found that the ratio of the within-population sum of squares to the total sum of squares is simply 4pq. Taking p 14 0.3 and q 14 0.7, this ratio is 0.84; 84% of the variability is within-population
Why is 4pq the variability of within population variance?
