We had a discussion a few days ago. I claimed that the classical model for the Bell theorem was being misrepresented. I proved that, and some anon were kind enough to direct me to a less ridiculous treatment of the classical case. The problem is that the treatment provide in the link below , although less ridiculous, is still not correct. I took the time to draw up a solution for Bells experiment for classical physics. It matches experiment results. It violates Bells inequality, since it's semi classical yet identical to the quantum result.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0301010418300648?via%3Dihub#s0030