/sci/ - Science & Math » Thread #11676010

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Anonymous Fri 15 May 17:25:11 2020 No.11676010 View Reply Original Report

Quoted By: >>11676086 >>11676100 >>11676267

>why is this true
Rule would be the n+1 tetration of n^(1/n) = n
( tetration bottom up)

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 17:48:07 No.11676086 Report

Quoted By:

>>11676010
neat

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 17:52:25 No.11676100 Report

Quoted By: >>11676182

>>11676010
Because that's not tetration.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 18:20:51 No.11676182 Report

Quoted By: >>11676245

>>11676100
>muh tetration of sqrt2 approaches 2 because some troll on wikipedia said it
get out of here with your fake math m8

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 18:39:06 No.11676245 Report

Quoted By: >>11676285

>>11676182
Number 1. Infinite tetration top down is 2
Number 2. That's not even what op is saying he's saying 3 tetration of sqrt(2) is 2
Number 3. Infinite teration has nothing to do with the question OP asked

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 18:45:06 No.11676267 Report

Quoted By:

>>11676010
Because (a^b)^c = a^(b*c).

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 18:48:21 No.11676285 Report

Quoted By: >>11676290

>>11676245
But OP isnt doing tetration. The parenthesis are in the wrong places. What OP is asking is trivial by exponent rules.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 15 May 2020 18:50:00 No.11676290 Report

Quoted By:

>>11676285
2^2^2^2 is tetration. thats exactly what OP did.

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