>>11632743>are you new to thisYeah, you're the first person I've talked to who thinks the argument is shit.
I don't agree with you. First of all, it doesn't take the power set of a countably infinite set. The mere statement of the theorem is
"for all x, y, if y is the power set of x then there cannot exist a bijection f between x and y". Do you think the statement I just wrote is true and is Cantor's argument a valid proof of it? Surely believing the statement doesn't require you to actually believe that you can take the power set of any set. "x is a power set of y" merely means that