>>11575635There is no 0.0....1, because this is a finite number. You keep parroting this and everyone with any basic background in analysis tells you that the claim isn't that there's a 0.0...1 difference. It's precisely the fact that the zeroes go to infinity that capture what we're saying on the real line.
tl;dr everyone here is trying to combat a basic consequence of the construction of the reals. If you want to construct your own complete totally ordered field with the Archimedean property, that's fine, but if not, then it's literally indisputable that 0.99... = 1 in the reals.