This makes no sense to me
If we apply the power rule, shouldn't the derivative of 1/(1-x) be -1/(1-x)^2?
>g=f(x)^n => g'=n*f(x)^(n-1)
In this case n=-1
Why isn't (-1) multiplying (1-x)^(-2)?
If we apply the power rule, shouldn't the derivative of 1/(1-x) be -1/(1-x)^2?
>g=f(x)^n => g'=n*f(x)^(n-1)
In this case n=-1
Why isn't (-1) multiplying (1-x)^(-2)?
