/sci/ - Science & Math » Thread #11222832

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Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 16:12:34 2019 No.11222832 View Reply Original Report

Quoted By: >>11222861 >>11222867 >>11222869 >>11223280 >>11223544 >>11225609

I can juggle with balls $n$ when $n_0=0$ .
I can juggle when $n_1=n_0+1$
I can juggle when $n_2=n_1+1$

Therefore, by proof of induction, I can juggle infinite amounts of balls.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:13:28 No.11222836 Report

Quoted By:

Why are math people so autistic that they have to use symbols instead of just speaking english

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:20:50 No.11222850 Report

Quoted By: >>11225605

No you show it is true for zero. Then you assume it is true for some arbitrary k. Then you show it's true for k+1.

Your second step n1 = no+1 is not some k it's a specific k that you chose.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:27:15 No.11222861 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222832
>If I can juggle n balls, then I can juggle n+1 balls
This is false

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:30:03 No.11222863 Report

Quoted By:

Also
>infinite amounts of balls
>implying you proved the step for limit ordinals

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:32:48 No.11222867 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222832
You haven't told us how many balls you can juggle given some vale nk. By the information given you can juggle only finite no of balls with a upper bound of 2.

Anonymous

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Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 16:33:31 No.11222869 Report

Quoted By: >>11224737

>>11222832
that's how ya do it kid

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 20:01:34 No.11223280 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222832
I can lift a weight of $n$ milligrams weight when $n = 0$ .
If I can lift a weight of $n$ milligrams, then I can lift a weight of ( $n+1$ )-milligrams.

Therefore, by proof of induction, I can lift infinitely massive weights.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 20:31:59 No.11223382 Report

Quoted By:

Can you juggle 8 balls though?

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 20:53:41 No.11223436 Report

Quoted By: >>11225588

First of all, for induction to work, you need to prove that for *any* number of balls, if you can juggle them, then you can juggle one more. You only proved (rather said) that you can juggle 0, 1 and 2 balls. Secondly, even if you had somehow correctly completed the induction step, then it would only mean that you can juggle any finite amount of balls, but not an infinite amount of them.

Anonymous

Anonymous Fri 13 Dec 2019 21:48:08 No.11223544 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222832
She can juggle my balls if you know what I mean

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 07:50:02 No.11224737 Report

Quoted By: >>11225573

>>11222869
>prove que:
Oh the french-english bilingual in me wants to commit sudoku right now

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 17:30:47 No.11225573 Report

Quoted By:

>>11224737
It's actually portuguese

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 17:37:00 No.11225588 Report

Quoted By: >>11225608

OP I think this only proves that $n+1$ follows $n$ , not that you can juggle some amount of balls...?
>>11223436
>Secondly, even if you had somehow correctly completed the induction step, then it would only mean that you can juggle any finite amount of balls, but not an infinite amount of them.
In such a case it would be that he could juggle a countably infinite number of balls

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 17:47:57 No.11225605 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222850
No, you show that IF it is true for k, then it is automatically also true for k+1.

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 17:49:00 No.11225608 Report

Quoted By:

>>11225588
So what's the k for k+1 to be infinity?

Anonymous

Anonymous Sat 14 Dec 2019 17:49:57 No.11225609 Report

Quoted By:

>>11222832
I know this is bait but some people can actually be this retarded

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