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Prove you use more than 4% of your brain power by solving the following:
Given an infinite sequence of maps (call all of them f)
...-> A_n -> A_(n-1) -> ... -> A_2 -> A_1
Where every A_n is finite and nonempty, prove that there is a sequence (a_1, a_2, a_3, ...) such that each a_i is an element of A_i and f(a_i)=a_(i-1) for i>1.
