>survey says 91% of Americans do X
>survey says 84% of Brits do X
>survey says etc etc etc
>survey is always done with 2000 people or so
How do this make sense??? I get they cant test everyone in the country but can they really just 2000 random people and say that "x% of people in country do Y" so easily??? What if they tested 2000 different people and it was like only 40% of people did "X" instead??? Do they specifically test people to fit into that demographic theyre testing for or something?? How can they just say that the entire country does something because they tested a 2000 person group?!?!? This makes me upset and frustrated, please explain thanks :)
>survey says 84% of Brits do X
>survey says etc etc etc
>survey is always done with 2000 people or so
How do this make sense??? I get they cant test everyone in the country but can they really just 2000 random people and say that "x% of people in country do Y" so easily??? What if they tested 2000 different people and it was like only 40% of people did "X" instead??? Do they specifically test people to fit into that demographic theyre testing for or something?? How can they just say that the entire country does something because they tested a 2000 person group?!?!? This makes me upset and frustrated, please explain thanks :)
