Which of these is correct:

A quantum fundamental particle has one existent location at all times but it is not possible to know where it is so the probability of where it is, is just a representation of where it could likely be based on available knowledge.

OR

A quantum fundamental particle doesn't actually have a location, and location itself is just a property of interactions, that is "observing it" by firing a particle at it, would create a location where the two particles interact, forcing them both to have a location which justifies the interaction?