No.11069277 ViewReplyOriginalReport
Aaaaaa. Why does the definition of surjection only mention that for every element in the codomain there is at least one element in the domain? But it doesn't say anything about the pre-domain, if it is the same as the domain or not. See picture. Is the graph a surjective function? What about the map on the right?? Is this surjection? Why why why is this never explained?