I was thinking... Say we have a number x.
x to the nth power is the same as x times x to the (n - 1)th power.
We could prove that 00 = undefined with this, check it out: 00 = 0 * 0-1 = 0 * (1/0) = 0/0. Say k = 0/0, therefore 0k = 0 and any number satisfies that so it is indeed undefined.
Okay, now check this out:
Say we have a number y. y is equal to itself to the 1st power:
y = y1
Let's expand using that property I discussed above.
y1 = y * y0
Once again
y * y0 = y * y * y-1
Let's do it infinite times.
We end up with y * y * y * y ... y * (y to the minus infinity) which is the same as (y to the infinity) times (y to the minus infinity).
Using power rules we can turn that into y to the (infinity - infinity) which gives us indeterminate.
That shouldn't be possible, otherwise I'd have broken maths. Where did I go wrong?
x to the nth power is the same as x times x to the (n - 1)th power.
We could prove that 00 = undefined with this, check it out: 00 = 0 * 0-1 = 0 * (1/0) = 0/0. Say k = 0/0, therefore 0k = 0 and any number satisfies that so it is indeed undefined.
Okay, now check this out:
Say we have a number y. y is equal to itself to the 1st power:
y = y1
Let's expand using that property I discussed above.
y1 = y * y0
Once again
y * y0 = y * y * y-1
Let's do it infinite times.
We end up with y * y * y * y ... y * (y to the minus infinity) which is the same as (y to the infinity) times (y to the minus infinity).
Using power rules we can turn that into y to the (infinity - infinity) which gives us indeterminate.
That shouldn't be possible, otherwise I'd have broken maths. Where did I go wrong?
