>>11038853Let's say an electron's spin is 1 or 0. If clockwise, it is 1. Counterclockwise, 0.
Then let's have a function called the Hadamard operand. When the Hadamard is applied to the electron, there is a 50% chance for the electron to flip spin (1 to 0 or 0 to 1). Therefore, when you use it on an electron, it will assume a state of superposition - both 0 and 1 at the same time - until you check which one it really is.
Now, what if we had a passcode of 01. There are 4 potential passcodes, 00, 01, 10, and 11. Suppose were to get 2 electrons of value 0 and use the Hadamard operation on them both. It is 00, 01, 10, and 11 at the same time. Let's say we have a function that checks whether the given passcode is correct (aka, return TRUE if the input is 01, FALSE if it is not). If we were to use said Oracle function (oracle, as in, it knows whether a given input is the correct passcode) on these 2 electrons in superposition, then it would flip the correct passcode's amplitude/phase. If you were to check it now, the system would be the same as before. But you can do some more Hadamard fuckery to use this flipped amplitude to eliminate all other solutions, so that when you measure the electrons it will always be 01.
Super simplified answer based off
https://davidbkemp.github.io/QuantumComputingArticle/part2.html. I'm not a quantum scientist.
