>>10875618This one is pretty easy. Split integral from 0 to pi/2 of (sin^n + cos^n)/(sin^n + cos^n) dx with distributivity. Then, use the substitution pi/2 - x on one of the integrals. This shows that these 2 integrals are the same, so half of integral from 0 to pi/2 of 1 is our solution. So, pi/4.
