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if you determine the marker via the mutation of the chromosome, how do you know your horizon of the mutations of the chromosome? everyday more and more obscure haplogroups are discovered and shown to be more common than not and ancient samples are very limited at showing the true diversity of chromosomal mutations too, since there is such a thing as a "assumed" haplogroup, like a metaphysical concept that arises out of necessity, but clearly this just shows that one new revelation could make all this haplogroup culture come crumbling down, furthermore i find it more than dubious to believe that chromosomal mutation can be linked to phenotypical response, india is almost exclusively a haplogroup defined by its commonality in slavic peoples, yet they dont phenotypically respond to that, why is that? i thought y dna is supposed to, in excess, be dominant? this doesnt make sense