How in the fuck did anyone ever arrive at this take:
"The high frequency of myopia in urbanized societies is explained in terms of an evolutionary adjustment, myopes probably having a survival advantage under conditions of industrialization. "
So I did a quick search, and it seems like there is some genetic link between intelligence and near-sightedness.
Why has the gene that causes near sightedness prospered?
It can't just be because of less than 10 IQ points...
It's dominant... Sure... But it generally begins affecting people, even before they sexually mature. When did this gene show up? Seems like an awful trick for evolution to play on the intelligent.
"The high frequency of myopia in urbanized societies is explained in terms of an evolutionary adjustment, myopes probably having a survival advantage under conditions of industrialization. "
So I did a quick search, and it seems like there is some genetic link between intelligence and near-sightedness.
Why has the gene that causes near sightedness prospered?
It can't just be because of less than 10 IQ points...
It's dominant... Sure... But it generally begins affecting people, even before they sexually mature. When did this gene show up? Seems like an awful trick for evolution to play on the intelligent.
