hey frens, I was hoping to get some conversation going around these results:
Relative risk reduction (RRR) for Pfizer and Moderna jabs are 95% and 91%, respectively.
Absolute risk reduction (ARR) for Pfizer and Moderna jabs are 0.84% and 1.2%, respectively.
It is my understanding that ARR adjusts for background risk, but RRR only accounts for the risk between the experimental and control group. In other words, with ARR we understand our reduction in risk relative to the risk we are naturally exposed to, whereas in RRR we understand our reduction in risk RELATIVE only to the control group, excluding any background/existing risk. Could anyone here please correct me if I'm wrong? Here's the study (very short read) that I'm reviewing/needing to better understand: https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lanmic/article/PIIS2666-5247(21)00069-0/fulltext#bib8
Relative risk reduction (RRR) for Pfizer and Moderna jabs are 95% and 91%, respectively.
Absolute risk reduction (ARR) for Pfizer and Moderna jabs are 0.84% and 1.2%, respectively.
It is my understanding that ARR adjusts for background risk, but RRR only accounts for the risk between the experimental and control group. In other words, with ARR we understand our reduction in risk relative to the risk we are naturally exposed to, whereas in RRR we understand our reduction in risk RELATIVE only to the control group, excluding any background/existing risk. Could anyone here please correct me if I'm wrong? Here's the study (very short read) that I'm reviewing/needing to better understand: https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lanmic/article/PIIS2666-5247(21)00069-0/fulltext#bib8
