No.13634101 ViewReplyOriginalReport
Does anyone have any experience interpreting test-negative approaches to vaccine effectiveness? Pic/link related. I feel like I'm losing my mind, or maybe I'm just a complete brainlet. Please note I'm not trying to deboonk any of this I just need help understanding.

https://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/volumes/70/wr/mm7037e2.htm?s_cid=mm7037e2_w

I can understand how test-negative approaches have worked in principle in the past for people studying influenza vaccines: you have a large cohort of people who have been to a clinic or hospital for treatment for influenza-like illness (ILI). You test them all for influenza using pcr or w/e. Your positive test results are your cases and the negative test results are your controls. This works because a large number of people with ILI will test negative for influenza, as they are symptomatic for any other number of respiratory infections, so you end up with more controls than cases, and you can do some simple statistics based on the vaccination rates between your two groups and come up with some estimate of vaccine effectiveness.

What I cannot for the life of me understand is how this approach is being applied to covid-19 infections/vaccines, such as in table 1 from this recent CDC report.
They find that, of 6,960 unvaccinated people who were hospitalized for covid-19, 1,316 had a positive test result for the virus. Whereas of 7,676 unvaccinated people hospitalized for covid-19, only 235 had a positive test result. Which begs the question, if among these 14,636 combined total people hospitalized for covid, only 1,551 (10.5%) tested positive for the virus, what the fuck did the other 89.5% of people have if not covid? In the middle of a global pandemic with hundreds of thousands of people dying, among the people being hospitalized for presumed covid-19 infections, only 10 fucking percent actually test positive for the virus?
I know that I have to be reading this wrong but I don't know how. Someone please help?