Why can't wolfram give an analytic solution to this integral?
Does pro time or mathematica give an analytic solution because I know one exists? I'm surprised it can't find an analytic solution for this but it can for this integral ? 0 to inf (arctan(1/x))2 dx after 10 seconds of just a numerical approximation, it changes from 2.17759 (approx) to ( analytic) ? * log(2).
Does pro time or mathematica give an analytic solution because I know one exists? I'm surprised it can't find an analytic solution for this but it can for this integral ? 0 to inf (arctan(1/x))2 dx after 10 seconds of just a numerical approximation, it changes from 2.17759 (approx) to ( analytic) ? * log(2).
