Okay, let's go with that.
Premise 1) There are one or more physiological markers that are associated with gender dysphoria
2) gender dysphoria highly correlated with identification as transgender (that is, most transgenders have gender dysphoria)
3) those who would potentially fit the category of "autogynephiliac" (that is, those who are sexually attracted to themselves being women, presumably via-self reporting) aren't exclusively those without gender dysphoria or the relevant physiological markers
The question then, is, whether the presence of gender dysphoria or the associated physiological markets is independent of the distribution of self-identified or theorized autogynephiliacs, or if its more complex. Plenty of things are multivariate.
I think it's pretty knee-jerk to say that Autogynephilia is a non-event, since we all know well how deviant/variable human sexuality can become.>>116668114
I'm not that anon that posted the links, and honestly, my opinion towards the trans community is based entirely on my personal interaction with them. It's pity and empathy that they're so sick, and sadness that the current methods of treatment are politically and doctrinally self-fulfilling, to the point where alternatives that don't affirm personal gender-identity are wrongthink.